10 Đề luyện thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Thái Phiên

Nội dung text: 10 Đề luyện thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Trường THPT Thái Phiên

1. PRACTICE TEST 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. stopped B. looked C. raised D. washed Question 2: A. appalled B. appeal C. advocate D. accelerate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. minority B. monument C. minister D. minimum Question 4: A. abdomen B. establish C. abolish D. accomplish Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: Mary likes swimming, ___? A. does she B. doesn’t she C. has she D. hasn’t she Question 6: My best friend, Laura, was born in ___ USA. A. the B. a C. X D. an Question 7: We waited ___ Jim for half an hour but he never came. A. in B. about C. at D. for Question 8: She is busy ___ the wedding invitations. A. to write B. write C. writing D. writes Question 9: If I ___ you, I wouldn’t travel on my own. A. was B. were C. am D. will be Question 10: Cath hasn’t phoned since she ___ to Berlin. A. went B. goes C. has gone D. going Question 11: ___ it was too late, he found it unacceptable to send them all away. A. Although B. Whereas C. Otherwise D. Because Question 12: I will wait for you ___. A. until you have finished your work B. if you finished your work C. when you had finished your work D. unless you will finish your work Question 13: Most of the people ___ in the crash recovered quickly. A. were injured B. who injured C. that injured D. injured Question 14: ___ in your partner is widely believed to be of great importance in marriage. A. Confident B. Confiding C. Confidential D. Confidentl Question 15: Food which is not stored correctly ___ more quickly. A. goes off B. takes over C. turns in D. gives up Question 16: It’s our duty to start repairing the damage we’ve ___ to nature. A. harmed B. made C. caused D. created Question 17: Many A.I. experts believe that A.I. technology will soon ___ even greater advances in many other areas. A. produce B. do C. make D. form Question 18: One of the problems of old age is that your memory can start to___ tricks on you. A. create B. make C. take D. play Question 19: Look at her hands shaking. I’ve never seen a job candidate so ___ before an interview. A. out of steam B. at risk C. on edge D. in charge Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: The water is contaminated with industrial waste. It’s not safe to drink. A. salted B. polluted C. infected D. wasted Question 21: Josh and Jill are not on very good terms and don't talk to each other for months. A. don’t have good relationship B. don’t agree on some terms C. don’t share common interests D. don’t know how to behave Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Some major changes have been made to the education system in recent years. A. complete B. suitable C. sudden D. minor Question 23: The students can’t wait to start their camping trip. They are over the moon about it. A. tired B. sad C. angry D. shy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Pamela: “I've passed my driving test." Adam: “___.” A. Good idea! B. Surprise! C. Congratulations! D. Good luck! Question 25: Tina: “I can't do this maths problem.” Tim: “___.”
2. A. Let me see. B. Definitely not. C. Certainly not. D. I suppose so. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. A CAREER AT HOME Jodie Sutter is thirty-eight. She has two daughters and has recently changed her lifestyle. She is part of a growing (26)___ of women who are abandoning their careers to become full-time homecarers. Jodie worked for ten years as a successful lawyer in a large legal firm in the city. She loved her job and was moving up the career ladder. She explained that she had (27)___ cases in court and gave it everything she had. Twelve-hour days were not uncommon and her weekends were always busy. When she had her first child, (28)___, things changed." In the first place, my colleagues couldn’t count on me when they had a heavy workload because I’d have to rush home to Lucy," she said. Her husband also had a demanding job and they soon realised that there was more to family life than they had imagined. "We were always behind (29)___!" she exclaimed. Jodie admits getting frustrated at times when the situation got out of hand. That’s when she was sure of her decision to leave her job. Her husband suggested that they should get a nanny. However, Jodie insisted on giving up her career, and did so when Lucy was three. "It's very difficult to (30)___ work with family life and I believe the latter is more important." Question 26: A. number B. degree C. extent D. amount Question 27: A. fascinate B. fascinated C. fascination D. fascinating Question 28: A. therefore B. then C. because D. though Question 29: A. agenda B. plan C. timetable D. schedule Question 30: A. connect B. combine C. relate D. associate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. Unlike these fish, which are actually extinct, the coelacanth is a type of fish that was believed to be extinct. However, an unexpected twentieth-century rediscovery of living coelacanths has brought about a reassessment of the status of this prehistoric sea creature that was believed to have long since disappeared from the Earth. From fossil remains of the coelacanth, paleontologists have determined that the coelacanth was in existence around 350 million years ago, during the Paleozoic Era, more than 100 million years before the first dinosaurs arrived on Earth. The most recent fossilized coelacanths date from around 70 million years ago, near the end of the Mesozoic Era and near the end of the age of dinosaurs. Because no fossilized remnants of coelacanths from the last 70 million years have been found, the coelacanth was believed to have died out around the same as the dinosaurs. The prehistoric coelacanth studied by paleontologists had distinctive characteristics that differentiated it from other fish. It was named for its hollow spine and was known to have been a powerful carnivore because of its many sharp teeth and a special joint in the skull that allowed the ferocious teeth to move in coordination with the lower jaw. It also had a pair of fins with unusual bony and muscular development that allowed the coelacanth to dart around the ocean floor. These fins also enable the coelacanth to search out prey trying to hide on the ocean bottom. In 1938, a living specimen of the coelacanth was discovered in the catch of a fishing boat off the coast of South Africa, and since then numerous other examples of the coelacanth have been found in the waters of the Indian Ocean. This modern version of the coelacanth is not exactly the same as its prehistoric cousin. Today’s coelacanth is larger than its prehistoric relative, measuring up to six feet in length and weighing up to 150 pounds. However, the modern version of the coelacanth still possesses the characteristic hollow spine and distinctive fins with their unusual bony and muscular structure. Question 31: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. various extinct fish B. the discovery of the coelacanth C. a particular prehistoric sea creature D. a reassessment of the status of some kinds Question 32: This passage is about a fish ___. A. that is extinct B. that once was extinct C. that is becoming extinct D. that, surprisingly, is not extinct Question 33: What is stated in the passage about the prehistoric coelacanth? A. It was a rather feeble fish. B. It lived on plants. C. It had few teeth. D. It moved its teeth in an unusual way. Question 34: According to the passage, why are scientists sure that the prehistoric coelacanth was a flesh- eater? A. Because of its hollow spine B. Because of the size of the skull C. Because of the shape and movement of the teeth
3. D. Because of its unusual bony and muscular development Question 35: The word “determined” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. decided B. desired C. discovered D. arranged Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. In the 19th and early 20th centuries, women had limited opportunities for a technical education and career, and few of them had an independent income. However, the history of women inventors in this period is very long. What sorts of women chose to become inventors under such difficult circumstances? The personal stories and achievements of two of them will always inspire future generations of inventors. The nineteenth-century inventor Margaret Knight was born in the USA in 1838. As a young girl, she was made to work in a cotton factory by her parents. While she was working there, there was an accident and somebody was almost killed by a machine. Margaret was only 12 at the time, but she invented a way to fix the machine so that if there was the same fault again, straight away the machine would shut down completely. She had more than eighty inventions, from a machine for cutting shoes to improvements for the steam engine. But her most important invention – a machine that produced paper bags with flat bottom – never made her much money. In fact, the idea for the original invention was stolen by the person who made the model for the machine. She had to go through a long legal battle to be finally recognized as the owner of the idea. In those days, women were not encouraged to be business people any more than they were encouraged to be inventors. Once Margaret Knight had produced an invention, she would usually sell it to somebody for not much cash, and when she died in 1914, all she left was 275 dollars. Beulah Henry also began inventing things when she was a young girl. In 1912, at age 25, she got her first patent for an ice-cream freezer. A year later, she patented a parasol – an umbrella for the sun – with changeable covers so that a woman could match her parasol with her clothes. Working out how to fix the covers so that they would not fly away on windy days was difficult, but she managed to do it. In fact, as she herself put it, ‘The biggest umbrella men in the country told me it could not be done.’ The invention earned her about 50,000 dollars from the manufacturers. In all, she patented 49 inventions. But for someone with such a long career, surprisingly little is known about Beulah Henry’s personal life. She was born in the USA in 1887 and grew up in an artistic family. She entered university in 1909 and we suppose her education did not include technical or mechanical subjects, as she was always honest about her lack of such skills. Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Two great female inventors B. Patented inventions that change the world C. A long battle for legal rights D. Women inventors in the 19th and 20th centuries Question 37: The word “inspire” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___. A. model B. encourage C. produce D. change Question 38: It is implied in the first paragraph that ___. A. In the 19th and 20th centuries, it was not difficult for women to make money by inventing machines. B. There were a large number of women inventors in the 19th and early 20th centuries. C. Women in the 19th and 20th centuries can easily approach to modern technical education. D. The inventions of women in the 19th and 20th centuries were fully appreciated. Question 39: The word “fix” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. install B. organize C. repair D. prepare Question 40: Which of the following did Margaret Knight and Beulah Henry have in common? A. They were encouraged to invent by their parents. B. They had secret private lives. C. They began their inventing career at a young age. D. They started work in a factory. Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ___. A. things B. covers C. clothes D. manufacturers Question 42: What is true about Beulah Henry? A. She was born into an engineering family. B. She did a mechanical degree at university in 1909. C. She was always honest about her private life. D. She was prepared to admit that her technical skills were not very developed. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: Michelle wishes (A) to come back to Paris, (B) in where she (C) spent most of (D) her childhood. Question 44: The number of (A) unemployed people (B) have increased (C) dramatically over (D) the last five years.
4. Question 45: Some (A) school leavers find it (B) hard to decide (C) whether to take a gap year or (D) moving on to higher education. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following questions. Question 46: “Don’t forget to lock your motorbike carefully, Mike,” Jack said. A. Jack advised Mike to forget to lock his motorbike. B. Jack reminded Mike to lock his motorbike carefully. C. Jack invited Mike to lock his motorbike carefully. D. Jack suggested locking Mike’s motorbike carefully. Question 47: Mr. Brown bought this car five years ago. A. Mr. Brown started to buy this car five years ago. B. It has been five years when Mr. Brown bought this car C. Mr. Brown has had this car for five years. D. It is five years ago since Mr. Brown bought this car. Question 48: John isn’t here now. Perhaps he is ill. A. John needn’t be here now because he is ill. B. Because of John’s illness, he might be here now. C. John isn’t here now because he may be ill. D. John isn’t here now because he mustn’t be ill. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of the sentences in the following questions. Question 49. He didn’t take his father’s advice. He is out of work. A. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work. B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work. C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work. D. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work. Question 50: Melissa didn’t entirely trust Bernard’s sources. She asked him where he’d got his information from. A. In order to trust Bernard’s sources, Melissa asked him where he’d got his information from. B. Melissa asked him where he’d got his information from so that she could trust Bernard’s sources. C. Not entirely trusting Bernard’s sources, Melissa asked him where he’d got his information from. D. If Melissa hadn’t entirely trust Bernard’s sources, she wouldn’t have asked him where he’d got his information from. PRACTICE TEST 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. wait B. train C. said D. paid Question 2: A raised B. supposed C. educated D.changed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. extreme B. mission C. rapid D. country Question 4: A. society B. epidemic C. initiate D. catastrophe Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5 . Nobody answered the door, ___? A. weren’t they B. were they C. did they D. didn’t they Question 6: He always did well at school having his early education disrupted by illness. A. in spite of B. on account of C. in addition to D. even though Question 7: She said that she___ you some day. A. had visited B. will visited C. would visit D. has visited Question 8: Florida, ___ the Sunshine state, attracts many tourists every year. A. known as B. which known as C. is known as D. that is known as Question 9: Tom had a lucky escape. He _ killed. A. could have been B. must have been C. should have been D. had been Question 10: As we walked past, we saw John his car. A. to repair B. repaired C. in repairing D. repairing Question 11: We decided to ___in Athens for a few days on our way home. A. stop over B. put up C. close down D. set up Question 12: Tom made a serious mistake at work, but his boss didn’t fire him. He’s lucky a second chance. A. having given B. having been given C. to have given D. to have been given Question 13: She wore___ . A. a long white wedding dress. B. a white long wedding dress
5. C. a wedding long white dress D. a long white dress wedding Question 14: Our Import–Export Company Limited will have to sales during the coming year. A. expand B. enlarge C. extend D. increase Question 15: After a good night sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as ___ and eager to start work again. A. fruit B. a daisy C. a kitten D. a maiden Question 16: Make sure you us a visit when you are in town again. A. give B. do C. pay D. have Question 17: My New Year’s this year is to spend less time on Facebook and more time on my schoolwork. But I’m not sure I will keep it. A. resolution B. salutation C. wish D. pray Question 18: Mr. Park Hang Seo, a Korean coach, is considered a big in Vietnam football. A. bread B. cheese C. sandwich D. egg Question 19: Tom is apologizing to Peter for being late. – Tom: “Sorry, I’m late, Peter. My car has broken down on the way here.” - Peter: “ ” A. No, I wouldn’t mind at all. B. Not on my account. C. That’s all right. D. Well, it’s worth a try. Question 20: Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes. – Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” – Mai: “ ” A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes. B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday. C. I hate shopping. D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21: To absorb a younger workforce, many companies offered retirement plans as incentives for older workers to retire and make way for the young ones who earned lower salary. A. rewards B. opportunities C. motives D. encouragements Question 22: Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfare. A. rejected B. sacked C. reviewed D. deleted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 23: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear. A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand Question 24: It is widely known that the excessive use of pesticides is producing a detrimental effect on the local groundwater. A. useless B. harmless C. damaging D. fundamental Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29. Polar bears are in danger of dying out. Unlike some other endangered animals, it's not hunters that are the problem, it's climate change. The temperature in the Arctic has slowly been rising and this is (26) the sea ice to melt, endangering the polar bears' home. The polar bears' main sources of food are the different types of seals found in the Arctic. They catch them by waiting next to the air holes seals have made in the ice. (27) the bears are very strong swimmers, they could never catch seals in water. This means that the bears really do rely on the ice to hunt. Polar bears also need sea ice to travel. They can cover a huge territory and often swim from one part of the ice to another. They have been (28)_ _ to swim up to 100 km, but when there is less ice, they may have to swim further and this can (29) fatal to the bears. A number of bears have drown in the last few years and scientists believe that it is because they were not able to reach more ice before they became too tired and couldn't swim any further. Question 25: A. in B. by C. within D. for Question 26: A. making B. turning C. causing D. resulting Question 27: A. Even B. Despite C. As D. Although Question 28: A. known B. learnt C. experienced D. noticed Question 29: A. happen B. come C. end D. prove Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. SAFETY ON THE ROADS.
6. Every day many road accidents happen in Hong Kong. Some accidents cause injuries but some lead to death. Everyone, especially children, must learn how to cross the road. A simple code to remember is “STOP, LOOK and LISTEN BEFORE YOU CROSS”. The Transport Department organizes road safety campaigns every year in order to reduce traffic accidents. Parents and teachers should educate children on road safety. Most schools have their own School Road Safety Patrols. The School Road Safety Patrol is a uniformed group. It recruits secondary school students as members. Students are senior forms help fellow students cross the road correctly and safely on their way to and from school. When you go out alone, however, what is the best way to cross the road? First, you must find a safe place to cross. There may be subways, footbridges, zebra or green man crossing. Of course, it is safest to be directed by a policeman. Then you should stand on the pavement where you can see clearly all the directions, look round for the traffic and listen. If a car is coming, you ought to let it pass. When there is no traffic near, walk straight across the road. Do not run as you may trip! Roads are dangerous. However, if everyone takes care when crossing the road, there will be fewer traffic accidents. Our transport system will then become safer and more efficient. Question 30. Who must learn how to cross the road safety? A. Children and their parents. B. Everyone, especially teachers. C. Those injured in road accidents. D. Everyone who uses the road. Question 31. What is the most suitable description for the School Road Safety Patrol? A. Its duty is to participate in Road Safety Campaigns. B. You need not wear a uniform if you join. C. It accepts school teachers as members. D. Patrol members direct students to cross the road correctly. Question 32. The word “takes care” in the last paragraph can best replaced by___. A. makes decision B. takes after C. look after D. pays attention Question 33. According to the writer, what will happen if everyone is more careful in using the road? A. Our transport system will not be safe. B. The roads will be widened. C. There will be no more traffic accidents. D. Fewer traffic accidents will happen. Question 34. Road safety campaigns are organized by the Transport Department to___. A. direct students to cross the road B. educate children on road safety C. help their School Road Safety Patrols D. cut down the number of road accidents Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. PANDEMIC DISEASES - DỊCH BỆNH Diseases are a natural part of life on earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of 1 keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics. Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a new thing in common. First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70 -80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread. While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic. Question 35. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth? A. They prevent pandemics B. They help control the population C. They kill too many people D. They led the world grow quickly Question 36. Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic diseases? A. It kill many people very quickly. B. They do not kill people very quickly. C. They kill all the victims. D. They spread from people to people very quickly. Question 37. The word ‘monitor’ in the passage is closest in meaning to___.
7. A. avoid B. watch C. fight D. prevent Question 38. This passage is mainly about___. A. pandemic diseases B. why pandemics happen C. how to prevent pandemic diseases D. pandemic diseases throughout history Question 39. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that___. A. it took a little over a week to kill its victims B. it was the last pandemic in history C. it involved a new kind of flu virus D. it killed over 25 million people Question 40. The word “it” in the passage refers to___. A. pandemics B. flu virus C. disease D. bodies Question 41. The author mentions SARS in order to___. A. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic B. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic C. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon. D. give an example of a highly dangerous disease Question 42. Based on the information in the passage the term “pandemics” can be explained as___. A. a deadly kind of flu C. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people B. diseases with no cure D. new disease like SARS or the Marburg virus Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: Whether (A) life in the countryside is better than that (B) in the city depend on (C) each individual’s point of view (D). Question 44: For more than (A) 450 years, Mexico City has been (B) the economic, culture (C) and political centre of Mexican people (D). Question 45: Many rare animals are in danger of (A) extinction (B) because (C) illegal hunting (D) and trading. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: “I’ll return it tomorrow,” said Sarah. A. Sarah offered to return it the following day. B. Sarah said she would return it tomorrow. C. Sarah agreed to come back the following day. D. Sarah promised to return it the following day. Question 47: His letter is full of mistakes. He sent it without checking. A. He must have checked the mistakes carefully before sending his letter. B. He should have checked the mistakes carefully before sending his letter. C. He could have checked the mistakes carefully before sending his letter. D. He can have checked the mistakes carefully before sending his letter. Question 48: You study hard for these exercises. You will do the final exam successfully. A. Study hard for these exercises, otherwise you wouldn’t do the final exam successfully. B. The harder you study for these exercises, the more successfully you will do the final exam. C. If you study hard for these exercises, you will do the final exam successfully. D. You can either study hard for these exercises or do the final exam successfully. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work. A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work. B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work. C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work. D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work. Question 50: As soon as James started working, he realized that his decision had not been a good one. A. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one. B. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one. C. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it. D. No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong. PRACTICE TEST 3 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. stopped B. cooked C. washed D. caused Question 2: A. method B. feather C. father D. weather
8. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. collect B. offer C. pollute D. explain Question 4: A. commercial B. disaster C. animal D. extinction Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. These students are Japanese, ___? A. are these B. are they C. aren’t these D. aren’t they Question 6: The more you practice speaking in public, ___. A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become Question 7: Viet Nam has kept a variety of superstitious ___ about daily activities. A. believe B. believing C. beliefs D. believable Question 8: Once ___ in the UK, the book will definitely win a number of awards in regional book fairs. A. is published B. having published C. published D. publishing Question 9: Granny is completely deaf. You will have to ___ allowances for her. A. bring B. find C. give D. make Question 10: In the U.S, children can choose their own partners even if their parents object ___ their choice. A. to B. for C. against D. with Question 11: They had a global ___ hit with their album concept about “The dark side of the Moon”. A. top B. song C. smash D. popular Question 12: People often use the natural world as inspiration to design and invent new ___. A. producers B. productivities C. productions D. products Question 13: John has worked very late at night these days, ___ he is physically exhausted. A. yet B. despite C. because D. so Question 14: Mary will have finished all her work ___. A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return C. by the time her boss returns D. when he-r boss will return Question 15: She went to college to study history, but changed ___ and is now a doctor. A. horses in midstream (đụ̉i giữa chừng) B. for a better C. her tune D. hands Question 16: I still remember the ___ afternoons that we spent at the beach when I was a child. A. long fantastic summer B. fantastic summer long C. fantastic long summer D. summer fantastic long Question 17:The boy was punished and foced to face the ___ for his dishonesty. A. music B. song C. tone D. tune Question 18: When the phone rang I ___ dinner. A. had B. was having C. were having D. have had Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 19: Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted. - Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight ?” - Sarah: “___.” A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable C. You are welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite Question 20: "Hello, I'd like to speak to Mr. Green, please." - “___” A. I'm afraid I don't know. B. I'm sorry. I'll call again later. C. Sorry. Can you take a message? D. Sure, I'll put you through. Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLO SEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21: Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit. A. organized B. delayed C. encouraged D. proposed Question 22: Helen Keller, blind and deaf from an early age, developed her sense of smell so finely that she could identify friends by their personal odors. A. classify B. communicate with C. describe D. recognize Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 23: I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute. A. was determined to go ahead B. lost my temper (mat can dam( C. was discouraged from trying D. grew out of it Question 24: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements.
9. A. something to suffer B. something enjoyable C. something sad D. something to entertain Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each ofthe numbered blanks from 25 to 29. Acupuncture is a Chinese method of treating illnesses by inserting needles into certain points of the body. The idea is that this restores the natural balance of energy, (25) ___ is disturbed when a person is ill. The origins of this therapy have been traced back over five thousand years, but it only began to be accepted in the West in the 1970s. In 1971, James Reston, a well-known journalist from the New York Times, was visiting China when he developed appendicitis. He was operated (26) ___ in a hospital in Peking, where the doctors used acupuncture to relieve his pain. Reston was surprised at how (27) ___ it was, and wrote about it in an article for the newspaper. Soon afterwards, Chairman Mao Tse-tung invited a group of distinguished Western doctors over to China to witness for themselves that (28) ___ worked. They were accompanied by television crews, and soon viewers in the West were watching operations being carried out on patients with acupuncture needles sticking out of them. The patients felt no pain. The Western experts were a little embarrassed at what they saw, because they had (29) ___ ridiculed the idea that patients could be treated with needles. But now they were forced to admit that it actually worked, and acupuncture became a popular form of therapy. (Source: Question 25: A. which B. that C. where D. what Question 26: A. at B. over C. in D. on Question 27: A. practical B. effective C. influential D. used Question 28: A. acupuncturist B. acupuncture C. puncture D. acupoint Question 29: A. previously B. before C. early D. anciently Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. A report from the United Nations given at the conference unveils how worrying the pollution caused by plastic utensils, especially plastic bags, is becoming. In a single minute, the world consumes one million plastic bottles; in a year, the world consumes five billion single-use plastic bags, according to Vietnamplus. The scary fact is that such plastic bottles and bags are not properly treated, as each year, the world discharges 300 million tons of plastic waste, accounting for some 10% of all solid waste, putting the environment and human health under tenterhooks, according to the news site. The conference also drew attention to another fact: “For a plastic bag that can be used for five minutes, it takes five seconds to produce, one second to discard, but 500 to 1,000 years to become totally decomposed,” says Vietnamplus. In another message given by the UN General Secretary and delivered at the conference, it is reported that since more than eight million tons of plastic bags end up in the oceans each year, “microplastics in the seas now outnumber stars in our galaxy.” “If present trends continue, by 2050 our oceans will have more plastic than fish,” Dan Tri reports, quoting Caitlin Wiesen, country director of the UN Development Programme in Vietnam. These above-mentioned fearful facts, however, are not merely global issues, but domestic problems as well, according to local media. Many local news outlets, when relating data from the conference, point out that white pollution – a term used to indicate the overwhelming discharge of plastic bags into the environment – is even getting worse in Vietnam than elsewhere. (Source: Question 30. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. White pollution is getting worse and worse. B. White pollution – a new type of pollution. C. The facts about plastic bags are scarier than what we can see. D. The problems caused by white pollution are increasing. Question 31. The word “tenterhooks” in the first paragraph mostly means ___. A. The feeling of happiness to know the good results. B. The possibility of harm or death to someone. C. Worry or nervousness about something that is going to happen. D. A statement about what you think will happen in the future. Question 32. The following are the facts about white pollution, EXCEPT ___. A. Five billion is the number of single-use plastic bags consumed by the world population in one year. B. Plastic waste makes up about one tenth of the solid waste on the Earth. C. It is as effortless to decay plastic bags as to manufacture them. D. Every year over eight million tons of plastic bags are littered in the oceans. Question 33. What does the phrase “present trends” in paragraph 3 refer to?
10. A. Microplastics in the seas now are much more than the stars in the sky. B. Million tons of plastics bags are discharged into the oceans. C. It takes 500 to 1,000 years to decompose the whole plastic bags. D. There are more plastic bags in the oceans than fish. Question 34. What does the author imply in the last paragraph? A. White pollution in Vietnam is almost out of control. B. Vietnamese should solve this environmental problem themselves. C. The state of plastic pollution in Vietnam is becoming the worst in the world. D. To reduce pollution, every country in the world has to join hands together. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. Billboards that Recognize You Have you ever felt you were being watched? Some new technologies might make you feel that way. Digital billboards are being created that have the ability to recognize certain characteristics. These high-tech devices have cameras pointed at the people on the street, and software that tries to recognize people by age and gender. A computer inside the billboard then uses this information to display ads that are directed at the people who are looking at the billboard. For example, if a man passes a billboard featuring an ad for cosmetics, the computer can change the ad to something that is more likely to catch the man’s attention, such as a restaurant, or sporting goods. While advertisers see this as a great opportunity to reach their target customers, some people feel that this kind of profiling is an invasion of their privacy. People are now much more aware of how information is exposed, shared, bought, and sold on the Internet. Now this debate will include technologies such as these “smart” billboards. But advertisers claim that they are sensitive to people’s concern about privacy - companies that have tested the billboards in Japan and the US assure consumers that the billboards can only guess your age and gender, but they will not be able to recognize your face or obtain any personal information about you. Until recently, this kind of “personal” advertising has been mostly limited to the Internet. Search engines like Google and Bing can follow what we search for because each computer that connects to those sites has a unique identity. Companies then pay search engines to use this information to display ads for products and services that you have searched for. So if you search for travel information, you are likely to see ads for airlines and hotels. This kind of advertising has proven to be much more effective and valuable than traditional advertising. In addition to taking steps to deliver more personalized messages, advertisers are using billboards to offer more useful information. Digital billboards can connect to the Internet to display information such as the time, weather, and news headlines. In the future, this technology could be used to reflect activity on social media sites or to broadcast ads that relate to local events. In today’s world, people ignore thousands of ads every day. Advertisers are trying to change that trend by personalizing the experience of seeing an ad. So pay attention the next time you see a billboard - it could be talking to you. Question 35. What is another possible title for the passage? A. The Dangers of Technology B. Billboards: Past and Present C. How Information Is Sold D. A New Level of Advertising Question 36. What does a digital billboard’s camera look for? A. a person’s fashion style B. what a person is carrying C. a person’s age and gender D. whether someone is alone Question 37. What is the main idea of the second paragraph? A. High-tech billboards do not collect personal information. B. People do not mind the billboards tested in Japan and in the US. C. Advertisers buy information about consumers on the Internet. D. People are worried about the type of information collected by billboards. Question 38. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. digital billboards B. digital advertising C. customers' personal information D. customers’ attention Question 39. Why does the passage mention Google? A. It is an example of a search engine that sells information to companies. B. It is better than other search engines in gathering information. C. It has started using high-tech billboards to get information. D. It plans to develop better ways to profile Internet users. Question 40. Because of advertising profiling, a person buying airline tickets online will . A. see ads for hotels and car rental companies B. get better prices on their airline tickets C .see no ads on the airline’s website
11. D. be offered discounts on shoes and clothing Question 41. In the passage, the writer says that video billboards . A. allow people on the street to use the Internet B. show movies and commercials C. display information about the weather and news D. are placed inside stores and buildings Question 42. What is the reason for advertisers making high-tech billboards? A. Regular billboards are not in good locations. B. People ignore regular advertisements. C. It is cheaper to make high-tech billboards. D. People are suspicious of regular advertising. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: Even a professional psychologist may have difficulty talking calm and logically about A B C his own problems. D Question 44: I prefer to watch a live concert to listening to music on the radio. A B C D Question 45: Fertilizers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: “Me? No, I didn’t tell lies to Suanna.”, Bob said. A. Bob denied telling lies to Suanna. B. Bob admitted not telling lies to Suanna. C. Bob apologize for telling lies to Suanna. D. Bob refused to tell lies to Suanna. Question 47: If only you had told me the truth about the theft. A. Had you had told me the truth, there wouldn’t have been the theft. B. You only told me the truth if there was a theft. C. Only if you has told me the truth about the theft. D. You should have told me the truth about the theft. Question 48: The last time I went to the museum was a year ago. A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago, I often went to the museum. C. My going to the museum lasted a year. D. At last I went to the museum after a year Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: My father gave us his money. We could manage our business successfully. A. If we couldn’t have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father’s. B. Without my father’s money, we could have managed our business successfully. C. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money. D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully. Question 50: Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us. She had already seen the movie. A. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us, so she had already seen it. B. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us as she had already seen it. C. As Karen had already seen the movie, Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema. D. Karen had already seen the movie, then she didn’t want to go the cinema. PRACTICE TEST 4 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. adopted B. recorded C. invested D. produced Question 2. A. region B. project C. heritage D. respect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. attend B. expand C. honour D. exist Question 4. A. industry B. investment C. animal D. origin Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. Mr. Pike was here last night, ___? A. were he B. didn’t he C. wasn’t he D. weren’t he Question 6. He ___ in a cafe when I saw him. A. were sitting B. sat C. is sitting D. was sitting
12. Question 7. My teacher has ___. A. big beautiful black eyes B. big black beautiful eyes C. eyes big beautiful black D. beautiful big black eyes Question 8. - Would you like to go to the movies tomorrow? - Sure. By then I ___ my exam. A. will finish B. finished C. have finished D. will have finished Question 9. Today, many serious childhood diseases ___ by early immunization. A. are preventing B. can be prevented C. prevent D .can prevent Question 10. My dad's eyesight is getting ___. He can hardly see a thing these days. A. worse and worse B. the worse and the worse C. worst and worst D. the worst and the worst Question 11. While on holiday in Italy, the prime minister paid a ___ to his opposite number in Rome. A. trip B. visit C. travel D. tour Question 12. This successful woman has a busy ___ life. A. society B. socialize C. social D. socializing Question 13. The British delegates arrived at the hotel at ___ 10.30 a.m. A. precisely B. especially C. considerably D. wholly Question 14. In the future, offices will ___ electronic with the result that paper will almost completely disappear. A. use B. go C. equip D. operate Question 15. Many people are ready to ___ hands to improve health care around the world. A. join B. shake C. hold D. take Question 16. ___the causes of global warming, the scientists worked out some solutions to reduce its effects. A. identified B. to identify C. Having identified D. being identified Question 17. Tom won't buy that old car because it has too much___on it. A. ups and downs B. odds and ends (viec lat vat) C. wear and tear D. white lie Question 18. She will attend class___, which is a right decision. A. after she finishes her homework assignment B. after she finished her homework assignment C.after she had finished her homework assignment D.after she will finish her homework assignment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 19. - Rose: “I have a headache.” - Jim: “___” A. Why have you it? B. What a day! C. What a nuisance! D. Why don't you take an aspirin? Question 20. - Shop assistant: “Would you like something else?” - Lan: “___” A. Yes, I like everything. B. It’s my pleasure. C. No, I wouldn't. D. That's all. Thank you. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21. The audience clapped enthusiastically because the performance was marvelous. A. terrific B. terrible C. bad D. tiring Question 22. If he had not turned a deaf ear to what I told him, he wouldn’t have failed miserably. A. had sharp ears B. refused to listen C. listened carefully D. had sensitive ears Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 23. The company declined Richard’s offer, which made him very depressed. A. refused B. rejected C. provided D. accepted Question 24. The copy machine is out of order and won't be repaired until tomorrow. A. in good condition B. under repair C. in a mess D. under control Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 25. Collecting books (A) are (B) what he enjoys (C) doing (D) in his free time. Question 26. Lake Superior, (A) that lies (B) on the US (C) Canadian border, is (D) the largest lake in North America. Question 27. She said that her (A) son’s success (B) resulted from his big efforts, (C) his great talent and (D) lucky. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following questions. Question 28. I have not met her for three years. A. The last time I met her was three years ago. B. It is three years when I will meet her. C. I did not meet her three years ago. D. During three years, I met her once. Question 29. Alice said, “Would you like some tea, James?”
13. A. Alice asked James to make her some tea. B. Alice wanted James to make her some tea. C. Alice offered to make some tea for James. D. Alice and James asked for some tea to drink. Question 30. It was a mistake of you to lose your passport. A. You shouldn't have lost your passport. B. There must be a mistake in your passport. C. You needn't have brought your passport. D. Your passport must be lost. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 31. We had hardly arrived the theater when the performance began. A. The performance had started before we arrive the theater. B. The performance started sooner than we arrived the theater. C. When we arrived the theater, the performance had already started. D. No sooner had we arrived the theater than the performance began. Question 32. I regret not studying hard enough to pass the final exam. A. I wish I had studied hard enough to pass the final exam. B. I had studied hard enough and I passed the final exam. C. I studied too hard to pass the final exam. D. I studied hard otherwise I would fail the final exam. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. ALBINA DU BOISROUVRAY Countess Albina du Boisrouvray was born in Paris in 1941 into a wealthy family. The first six years of her life were spent in New York, where she had her first (33)___ of social injustice. “I was in Central Park and I started playing with a group of black girls (34)___ I thought they seemed nicer than the white girls I was with. But I was dragged away by my nanny and told, “You mustn’t play with those girls because they’re black.” That struck me as very unjust. She attended schools in Argentina, Switzerland and Britain but left school to get married and, at the age of 20, she gave birth to a son, Franỗois-Xavier. In the 1960s she studied philosophy at the Sorbonne University and worked for a short time (35)___ a model and a journalist before setting up a cinema production company. But tragedy struck in 1986 when Franỗois-Xavier was (36)___ in a helicopter accident in Mali. Much to her sadness, she started a charity (37)___ AFXB in his memory, in the process selling off 60% of her estate, including $31.2 million worth of jewelry and an art collection that brought in $20 million. “The collections were never really part of my life,” she said. “I’m not into things.” The foundation’s chief mission is to support children and families affected by the global AIDS pandemic. It also funds educational programmes in many countries and now employs over 400 people worldwide. Question 33. A. experiment B. experience C. embarrassment D. interference Question 34. A. because B. so that C. even though D. while Question 35. A. like B. about C. on D. as Question 36. A. died B. damaged C.killed D. ruined Question 37. A. called B. calling C. was called D. to call Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42. ALMOST HUMAN? Steven Spielberg’s 2001 film A.I. is the story of David, a robot-boy who can think and feel like a human. The film is set in the distant future, but the idea is not as far-fetched as it may seem at first. Today scientists are developing computers that are capable of interacting and communicating with humans. New Yorker Hugh Loebner was fascinated by the idea of artificial intelligence, and in the early 1990s offered $100,000 to the first program to pass the “Turing Test”, that is, to successfully fool a panel of judges into thinking it was a real person. That challenge has turned into an annual competition, but despite 16 years of trying, no technology has made that breakthrough, and the grand prize remains unclaimed. However, every year the judges award a prize to the computer program that comes closest to passing the test, and in 2006 the lucky winner was Joan. She is just a few years old but is already very talkative. Joan’s maker, the British entrepreneur Rollo Carpenter, emerged victorious after a day of intense competition as a quartet of software experts and their creations battled it out in a blind test held at University College London. The judges help typed conversations – similar to an Internet chat program – with all four of the challengers, before they declared Joan the world’s most human computer program. Question 38. Robots such as David in Spielberg’s film A.I. ___. A. are completely unrealistic B. already exist C. could not exist in the future D. are being developed by scientists Question 39. When did the competition sponsored by Loebner begin? A. After Steven Spielberg’s film A.I. B. In the early 1990s C. In the late1950s D. Before the invention of the computer
14. Question 40. How many computer programs were there in the blind test in 2006? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six Question 41. What was the result of the competition? A. Joan won the $100,000 award. B. Joan won the competition for the second time. C. Joan was considered the most human. D. None of the competitorswon the prize. Question 42. The word “breakthrough” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. major goal B. special difficulty C. complete failure D. important achievement Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Getting Focused and Flexible with Yoga In a small room, men and women are getting a great workout. However, there are no weights in this gym. The only piece of equipment is a small rubber mat. On it, they strike unusual poses which are held for minutes at a time. An instructor goes from student to student urging them to relax and breathe deeply, while inspecting their posture. In the end, through the art of yoga they hope to balance their body, mind, and spirit. Yoga originated in India over 2,000 over years ago. The first yogis weren’t looking to lose weight or get themselves in great shape. Instead, they practise yoga to help them achieve liberation. Yoga became an important part of Hindu culture, and it is mentioned in nearly all of the religion’s ancient scriptures. It wasn’t until the 19th century, however, that Westerners took notice of yoga. In the 1890s, Swami Vievekananda became the first yoga teacher to take on Western students when he toured the US and Europe. His lessons focused primarily on the spiritual aspects, and his speeches intrigued many intellectuals, but it would take some time before yoga would catch on with the masses. That didn’t happen until the 1980s when many Americans and Europeans embraced yoga during a worldwide exercise boom. Yet once it took hold, yoga has increased popularity year by year. It is estimated that over 20 million Americans now practise yoga regularly. A main reason why contemporary people are hooked on yoga is that it helps to relieve work-related stress. Students are taught to breathe slowly and deeply while concentrating on the present moment and letting go of the past. The challenging postures help to balance the negative effects people experience from sitting in chairs all day. The poses also help people to regain flexibility and improve circulation, which is particularly useful to the elderly. As yoga became commercialized in the West, many new branches were formed. Ashtanga yoga moves at a fairly quick pace, flowing from pose to pose. Power yoga, on the other hand, offers workouts that are designed to increase strength. Another popular style, hot yoga, has students practise in hot environments to help them burn more calories. If you are thinking of studying yoga, try them all and let your heart decide which one is best for you. Question 43. What is the purpose of the first paragraph? A. To argue that yoga isn’t healthy B. To introduce modern society C. To describe a yoga class D. To explain the history of yoga Question 44. Which of the following best matches the meaning of the word “intrigued” in paragraph 2? A. annoyed B. interested C. bored D. worried Question 45. The word “that” in paragraph 2 efers to . A. yoga speech B. yoga exercise C. regular practice D. popularity Question 46. What did Swami Vievekananda do? A. He was the first person to invent yoga. B. He started his own religion in the US. C. He refused to teach yoga to Westerners. D. He made yoga more internationally popular. Question 47. Why are many people today starting to pratise yoga? A. It gives them more beautiful bodies. B. It helps them get rid of stress C. It gives them more energy. D. It makes them taller. Question 48. All of the following are the benefits of yoga EXCEPT that . A. it increases flexibility and improves circulation B. it is a good way to get rid of stress C. it is considered a way to balance their body, mind, and spirit D. it improves commercialization in the West Question 49. What is the last paragraph mainly about? A. Ways to get stronger using yoga. B. The best diet to match with yoga C. Some different styles of yoga D.Why hot yoga classes were started Question 50. Who would be most interested in practising yoga? A. A busy person who often travels on business and practice t’ai chi in free time B. The elderly who have problems of balance, heart disease and respiration C. Children who want to become ballet dancers in the future D. Western businessmen who would like to get benefits from opening yoga classes The End
15. PRACTICE TEST 5 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 01. A. runs B. maps C. works D. laughs Question 02. A. moon B. food C. pool D. foot Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 03. A. defend B. precede C. decent D. expand Question 04. A. initiate B. epidemic C. opponent D. enthusiast Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 05. There is nothing in the fridge, ___? A. isn’t there B. is there C. is it D. isn’t it Question 06. Mary expected___ to her dreamy university, but she wasn't. A. to admit B. admitting C. to be admitted D. being admitted Question 07. I can't go with you because I___ my homework yet. A. hadn’t finished B. haven't finished C. didn’t finish D. don’t finish Question 08. If it ___warm yesterday, we would have gone to the beach. A. was B. were C. had been D. could be. Question 09. The London Tower Bridge, ___, is a World Heritage Site. A. measuring 244 metres long B. measured 244 metres long C. to be measuring 244 metres long D. to be measuring 244 metres long Question 10. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were___ of teachers. A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting Question 11. The plane would have landed easily___ the thick fog. A. but for B. because of C. due to D. despite Question 12. Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn’t take them___. A. out of habit B. as usual C. as a rule D. for granted Question 13. If you have any problem, please call Ann. She'll always___ a sympathetic ear. A. bring B. borrow C. give D. lend Question 14. . “We’d better if we want to get there in time.” A. take up B. turn down C. speed up D. put down Question 15. We have decided to___ our research into environmental waste to ensure high health standards in this city. A. broaden B. outweigh C. exaggerate D. boost Question 16. The athlete failed in his last___ to break the world record A. trial B. effort C. attempt D. experience Question 17. There was a ___of thunder and then it started to pour with rain. A. series B. clap C. sound D. flash Question 18. We are worried ___ the current situation of environmental pollution in our country. A. with B. in C. about D. at Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19. The doctor is busy right now, but he could probably fit you in later. A. look after you B. examine your health problem C. find time to see you D. try to cure your illness Question 20. His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn’t want to hire him anymore. A. agreement B. obedience C. rudeness D. respect Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 21. Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and earning money. A. pessimistic B. expected C. fearsome D. excited Question 22. It is believed that conflicts between parents and children can be resolved by means of heart- to-heart talks. A. harmony B. disagreements C. differences D. similarities Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 23. Two students are chatting in the corridor after class. - Tim: “Geography is certainly one of the most interesting subjects.” - Laura: “___” A. I don't think so. You can say that again
16. B. I'm afraid I'm not with you. It gives me a headache C. That's OK. As long as you like it D. That's not true. I can't understand how you feel Question 24. Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pets. - Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house." - Linda: “___” A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again. C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are very good, too. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29. The World Health Organization (WHO) is warning young people all over the world that they are also at risk from COVID-19. The WHO said young people are not exempt from catching the corona virus. Many young people (25)___ believe they will not catch the virus because of their age. They think it is a disease that only older people catch. The WHO said the truth is (26)___ young people are catching the corona virus and becoming ill or dying from it. It added that young people are also spreading the disease to their parents, grandparents and (27)___ people. The White House also urged young adults to follow advice and to avoid gathering in large groups to help prevent the spread of the virus. The Director-General of the WHO said: "Today, I have a message for young people: You are not invincible." He added: "This corona virus could put you in hospital for weeks, or even kill you. Even if you don't get sick, the choices you make about where you go could be the difference between life and death for someone else." The WHO said: "A significant proportion of patients (28)___ in hospital for COVID- 19 around the world are aged under 50." New York Governor Andrew Cuomo said many young people are not (29)___ the state's social-distancing rules. He told young people that: "This is a public health issue and you cannot be endangering other peoples' health." (Source: Question 25. A. really B. mistakenly C. strongly D. frequently Question 26. A. why B. what C. that D. when Question 27. A. other B. others C. the others D. the other Question 28. A.to treat B.to be treated C. treating D. treated Question 29. A. following B. doing C. making D. keeping Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can discover the wonders of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will light up. Start a wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our imagination. The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communication, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in science and technology among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be established in South East Asia. It was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation. These exhibits are renewed annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the centre. Instead of the usual “hands off” notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if you hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the animals and people which were extinct. (Source: language123.blogspot.com) Question 30. What can be the best title of the passage? A. Singapore Science Centre B . Science Centre C. Discovery Centre D. Physical Sciences Question 31. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to___. A. the centre B. the general public C. evolution D. solar radiation Question 32. According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore Science Centre? A. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre. B. The centre was not opened until 1977. C. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics. D. The centre is the first one established in the world. Question 33. It is stated in paragraph 2 that___. A. the science centre makes people interested in science and technology B. only students can visit the science centre
17. C. visitors don’t want to come back to the science centre D. there are only several exhibits in the science centre Question 34. The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT___. A. The exhibits are renewed every year. C. There are four exhibition galleries in the centre. B. The centre is located in Jurong. D. The centre is the biggest in Asia. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. Cambridge University is considering axing compulsory written exams, allowing students to use laptops or iPads instead, after tutors complained that students' handwriting is becoming illegible. Academics say the move, which would bring an end to over 800 years of tradition, has come about because students rely too heavily on laptops in lectures, and are losing the ability to write by hand. Dr. Sarah Pearsall, a senior lecturer at Cambridge University, said handwriting is becoming a ''lost art'' among the current generation of students. She added, ''It's increasingly hard for our examiners to read students' scripts. Those with illegible writing are forced to come back to their college during the summer holidays to read their answers aloud in the presence of two university administrators. It's extraordinarily commendable that the University is considering reforms to its examination practices.'' Sir Anthony Seldon, Vice-Chancellor of the University of Buckingham, said it is inevitable that universities will move to computers as handwriting deteriorates in the coming years. ''We have to accept the reality. Handwriting has now become an optional, not a necessary, part of education. There simply isn't the same time in the curriculum for learning elegant, beautiful handwriting. Life is so quick now. Everybody writes as if they were a doctor writing a prescription,'' he said. ''Handwriting is not necessary for great thought, great English, or great intelligence. Some of our finest wordsmiths today write using laptops, and we have to fight to preserve what is really important, such as the use of great English or great sentence structures.'' Others, however, were not very positive about the move. Tracey Trussell, a handwriting expert, urged Cambridge to ensure that students continue to write by hand. She said, ''It's vital that people continue to write by hand. Writing by hand improves memory and equates to a higher rate of comprehension and information retention.'' There is also concern that schools could follow Cambridge's example by moving away from handwriting. Dr. Jane Medwell, Associate Professor of Education at the University of Nottingham, is concerned that scrapping handwritten exams in universities could prompt ''downward curriculum pressure'' on primary and secondary schools to follow suit. (Adapted from telegraph. co. uk) Question 35. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. Cambridge University in an Attempt to Improve Students' Handwriting B. Cambridge University Pondering Changes to its Exam Practices C. Cambridge University Attacked again for Abolishing Written Exams D. Cambridge University to Replace Written with Oral Exams Question 36. According to paragraph 1, Cambridge University has a long-standing tradition of___. A. offering academic tutorials B. organising handwritten exams C. relying heavily on technology D. training students in legible handwriting Question 37. The word ''Those'' in paragraph 2 refers to___. A. examiners B. students C. scripts D. administrators Question 38. The word "deteriorates'' in paragraph 3 mostly means___. A. remains unchanged B. becomes more important C. improves gradually D. gets worse and worse Question 39. It can be inferred from what Sir Anthony Seldon said in paragraph 3 that___. A. schools in the country used to have more time for handwriting practice B. schools in the country have failed to preserve the beauty of English C. people's handwriting generally reflects their intelligence and linguistic competence D. the majority of doctors these days no longer write prescriptions by hand Question 40. The word ''scrapping'' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___. A. reconsidering B. eliminating C. introducing D. discouraging Question 41. As mentioned in paragraph 4, writing by hand can___. A. enhance the ability to remember information B. guarantee desirable academic performance C. facilitate the process of information exchange D. relieve students of unnecessary pressure Question 42. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage? A. Cambridge University’s move away from handwriting has already set an unprecedented example for other schools to follow. B. Sarah Pearsall acknowledged handwriting as an art form to be preserved among the current generation of students at Cambridge University.
18. C. Sir Anthony Seldon claimed that learning to use great English was more important than learning to write by hand beautifully. D. Most of the tutors at Cambridge are skeptical of the university's decision regarding handwritten exams. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43. Last week, my sister doesn’t go out with her friends. A. week B. doesn’t C. go out D. with Question 44. They are having their house being painted by a construction company. A. having B. their C. being painted D. construction Question 45. The production manager was asked to write his report quickly, accurately, and in a detailed manner. A. production B. was asked C. quickly D. in a detailed manner. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. I last met her three years ago. A. I have not met her for three years. B. It is three years when I will meet her. C. I did not meet her three years ago. D. During three years, I met her once. Question 47. "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students. A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. Question 48. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals. A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. I had just arrived home. I was called immediately back to the head office 10 kilometers away. A. Hardly had I arrived home when I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away. B. Because I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away. C. Should I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away. D. Whenever I had just arrived home, I was called immediately back to the office 10 kilometers away. Question 50. The car driver in front stopped so suddenly. Therefore, the accident happened. A. If the car driver in front didn’t stop so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t happen. B. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident wouldn’t have happened. C. If the car driver in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident would have happened. D. If the car driver in front had stopped suddenly, the accident would have happened. PRACTICE TEST 6 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. attempts B. conserves C. obeys D. studies Question 2. A. spear B. gear C. fear D. pear Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following Questions. Question 3. A. capture B. reserve C. confide D. appeal Question 4. A. stimulate B. sacrifice C. devastate D. determine Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night, ___? A. are they B. aren’t they C. haven’t they D. don’t they Question 6. The ___ leaving his car outside hasn’t come back for it yet. A. young man French B. French young man C. young French man D. man young French Question 7. If we took the 6. 30 train, we___ too early. A. would have arrived B. arrived C. will arrived D. would arrive. Question 8. She hurt herself while she___ hide-and-seek with her friends A. played B. had played C. is playing D. was playing Question 9. Our visit to Japan was delayed___ my wife’s illness. A. because B. because of C. thanks to D. although
19. Question 10. ___, she had studied English. A. Before she came to England B. By the time she comes to England C. While she was in England D After she came to England Question 11: Some researchers are finding that daydreaming may be important to ___ mental health. A. the B. a C.an D. ỉ ( no article) Question 12. His choice of future career is quite similar___ mine. A. for B. to C. with D. at Question 13. I’ll remember___ him tomorrow. It will be a big sum of money I’ve been saving so far. A. paying B. to pay C. paid D. to be paid Question 14. With his good sense of humour, Martin is quite___ the students. A. popularly B. popularity C. popular D. popularise Question 15. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will___ that position. A. take over B. stand for C. hold on D. catch on Question 16. We all wish to create a friendly and supportive environment___ to learning. A. accommodating B. conducive C. detrimental D. liable Question 17. It’s time he acted like a___ adult and stopped blaming others for his wrong doings. A. believable B. suitable C. responsible D. sociable Question 18. A university degree is considered to be a___ for entry into most professions. A. claim B. demand C. requisite D. request Question 19. The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a___ of a doubt. A. shade B. shadow C. benefit D. hue Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Questions. Question 20. Many organizations have been involved in drawing up the report on environmental campaigns. A. concerned about B. confined in C. enquired about D. engaged in Question 21. Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the lunar calendar to manage their crops, the start of the year. A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Questions. Question 22. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend. A. driven away B. deceived deliberately C. given a lift D. created with sincerity Question 23. Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to calculate their position accurately. A. carelessly B. imprecisely C. uneasily D. untruthfully Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24. Ken and Tom are high – school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet. - Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?” – Tom: “___”. A. Studying in a group is great fun. C. We are too busy on weekdays. B. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. The library would be best. Question 25. Linda is taking to Anna about her hat. Linda: “What a lovely hat you have.” Anna: “Thanks, ___” A. I’m glad you like it B. I don’t care C. That’s OK D. Certainly Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. KEEPING FIT Bodies are made to move! They are not (26)___ for sitting around in front of the television or reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn't mean have to be a super-athlete, and even (27)___ exercise can give you a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you will find you look better and feel better. You will develop more energy and self-confidence. Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run, jump and climb. More it does, the stronger and fitter it will become. Best of all, exercise is fun. It's what your body likes doing most-keeping on the move. Physical exercise is (28)___ good for your body. People who take regular exercise are usually happier, more relaxed and more alert than people who sit around all day. Try an experiment- next time you are in a bad mood, go for a walk or play a ball game in the park. See how much better you feel after an hour.
20. A good (29)___ of achievement is yet another benefit of exercise. People feel good about themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People (30)___ exercise regularly will tell you that they find they have more energy to enjoy life. So have a go you'll soon see and feel the benefits. Question 26. A. planned B. designed C. programmed D. caused Question 27. A. a little B. a few C. little D. few Question 28. A. not only B. if C. either D. both Question 29. A. sense B. feel C. lot D. piece Question 30. A. whom B. who C. which D. whose Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the Questions from 30 to 34. Deep brain stimulation (DBS), an experimental technology that involves implanting a pacemaker-like device in a patient’s brain to send electrical impulses, is a hotly debated subject in the field of medicine. It is an inherently risky procedure and the exact effects on the human brain aren’t yet fully understood. But some practitioners believe it could be a way to alleviate the symptoms of depression or even help treat Alzheimer’s - and now they suspect it could help with drug addiction as well. In a world’s first, according to the Associated Press, a patient in Shanghai’s Ruijin Hospital had a DBS device implanted in his brain to treat his addiction to methamphetamine. And the device has had an astonishingly positive effect, the patient says. “This machine is pretty magical. He adjusts it to make you happy and you’re happy, to make you nervous and you’re nervous,” he told the Associated Press. “It controls your happiness, anger, grief and joy.” Other studies in China have yielded mixed results trying to treat opioid addictions using DBS, according to the AP. In the United States, at least two studies that tried to treat alcoholism with DBS were dropped for not being able to justify the risks. The idea of using DBS to treat drug addiction has raised concerns in medical communities across the globe about brain hemorrhage, seizures, or personality changes. Question 31. The word “alleviate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___. A. demolish B. ease C. destroy D. devalue Question 32. According to the passage, the use of DBS___. A. has been thoroughly studied by scientists. B. has been approved by all Chinese practitioners. C. has achieved both positive and negative results. D. has successfully cured opioid addictions in China. Question 33. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as concerns about the use of DBS to treat drug addiction in medical communities worldwide EXCEPT___. A. Seizures B. Brain hemorrhage C. Alcoholism D. Personality changes Question 34. The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to___. A. Deep brain simulation B. a pacemaker-like device C. the field of medicine D. a patient’s brain Question 35. What is the passage mainly about? A. Symptoms of depression B. Curing addiction C. Deep brain simulation D. Brain diseases Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to answer the Questions from 35 to 42. Improving girls’ educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospects of their entire community. The infant mortality rate of babies whose mothers have received primary education is half that of children whose mothers are illiterate. In the poorest countries of the world, 50% of girls do not attend secondary school. Yet, research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%. Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women, improves the standard of living for their own children, as women invest more of their income in their families than men do. Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private latrine facilities for girls. Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in developing countries, have helped them make inroads to professional careers with better-paying salaries and wages. Education increases a woman's (and her partner and the family's) level of health and health awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages of initiation of sexual activity and first intercourse, later age at first marriage, and later age at first childbirth, as well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a
21. situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of office. Question 36. What can be the best title of the reading passage? A. Education and Women's Empowerment B. Female Education and Social Benefits C. Woman's Rights to Lifelong Education D. Education and Violence Against Women Question 37. Which of the following statements is true according to the first paragraph? A. Many children in Asia have died because of their mother's ignorance B. Children whose mothers are illiterate are unable to grow healthily C. The higher their education level is, the more money women earn D. It is their husbands who make women improve their education level Question 38. It is implied in the first paragraph that___. A. the husband in a family takes little responsibility in rearing the children B. the mother in a family makes every effort to raise the children effectively C. the children's standard of living largely depends on their mother's income D. there are numerous reasons for women not to come to class worldwide Question 39. The word "barriers" in the passage is closest in meaning to___. A. challenges B. problems C. difficulties D. limits Question 40: The phrase "make inroads into" in the passage can be best replaced with___. A. make progress in B. celebrate achievement in C. succeed in taking D. take the chance in Question 41. According to the passage, furthering women's levels of education and advanced training does not result in___. A. an increased level of health awareness for the husbands B. an increased likelihood to remain single among women C. higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use D. improved rates of civic participation among women Question 42. The word "It" in the passage refers to___. A. furthering women's levels of education and advanced training B. higher attendance rates of high schools and university education C. increasing levels of long-term partnership D. a woman's level of health and health awareness Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following Questions. Question 43. Fifty minutes are the maximum length of time allotted for the exam. A. are B. length C. maximum D. allotted Question 44. I like cooking, reading book, and to go out with my friends when I have free time A. cooking B. with C. have free time D. to go Question 45. Speech sounds are produced as a continuous sound signal rather than discreet units A. speech B. discreet C. are produced D. signal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following Questions. Question 46. My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV. A. My father doesn't like watching TV as much as reading newspapers. B. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers. C. My father doesn't like reading newspapers as much as watching TV. D. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers. Question 47. "No, I won’t go to work, at the weekend," said Sally. A. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend. B. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend. C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend. D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend Question 48. I must prepare the meals for my family every day. A. I am required to prepare the meals for my family every day. B. I will prepare the meals for my family every day. C. I am able to prepare the meals for my family every day. D. I don’t have to prepare the meals for my family every day. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following Questions. Question 49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him. A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. B. If only he had been able to finish his book. C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
22. D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn't finish his book. Question 50. We couldn't solve the problem until our teacher arrived. A. Not until we solved the problem could our teacher arrive. B. When our teacher arrived, we solved the problem. C. Until our teacher arrived, we were able to solve the problem. D. Not until our teacher arrived could we solve the problem. ___HẾT___ PRACTICE TEST 7 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following Questions. Question 1. A. discover B. rural C. active D. common Question 2. A. insurance B. available C. consider D. reference Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following Questions. Question 3. A. signals B. descends C. forecasts D. destroys Question 4. A. naked B. worked C. decided D. planted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Questions. Question 5. Don’t tell us that joke again. We ___ it so many times! A. hear B. have heard C. heard D. had heard Question 6. Florida, ___ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year. A. who is B. is known as C. known as D. that is known as Question 7. Governments have ___ laws to protect wildlife from commercial trade and overhunting. A. enacted B. acted C. practiced D. observed Question 8. Because of their careless work, the road had to be repaired after only one year ___. A. to use B. for use C. in use D. for using Question 9. That cannot be a true story. He ___ it up. A. must have made B. should have made C. would have made D. can have made Question 10. If there___ happen to be any reason for late delivery, please inform our Accounts Department. A. might B. could C. would D. should Question 11. The children rarely stay late this evening, ___? A. is it B. do they C. don’t they D. isn’t it Question 12: The more you talk about the matter, ___ A. the worse the situation seems B. the situation seems worse C. the worse seems the situation D. the situation seems the worse Question 13. Only three out of twenty ___ were chosen for the job after the interview. A. customers B. candidates C. passengers D. athletes Question 14. Our English- speaking club will enable the students ___ English much better. A. to learn B. learn C. learning D. to learning Question 15. It was___ a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it. A. such surprising B. so surprising C. too surprising D. surprising enough Question 16. I’m becoming increasingly ___. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice. A. narrow-minded B. absent-minded C. brain-dead D. brain-drain Question 17: Li has ___; he loves cakes, chocolate, ice- cream – anything which is sweet. A. a sweet tooth B. sweet lips C. a sweet tongue D. a sweet mouth Question 18: The choir stood in four rows according to their ___ heights. A. respected B. respective C. respectable D. respectful Question 19: I won’t buy that car because it has too much ___ on it. A. ups and downs B. white tie C. wear and tear D. odds and ends Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Two students are talking to each other about their exams. A: “ Do you think she’ll do well in her math test? “ B: “___” A. I doubt so B. I doubt it C. So I doubt it D. I doubt not Question 21. Two colleagues are talking with each other about their work at the office. Tom : “ Lucy! I got a promotion today!” Lucy: “___”
23. A. Wow, this is great news! Iam so glad for you. B. If I want to lead, then I need to prove it . C. Always set yourself out as an example , do a good job D. Convince people of their value, just to lead. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Questions. Question 22. Their daughter soon became a celebrated writer after the publication of her first novel. A. honored B. best-seller C. praised D. famous Question 23. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their hair down for a while. A. relax and enjoy themselves B. have their hair cut C. stop and have a short break D. let their hair dry Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Questions. Question 24. Josh may get into hot water when driving all full speed after drinking. A. get into trouble B. stay safe C. fall into disuse D. remain calm Question 25. The Red Cross helps reduce the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war. A. happiness B. loss C. sadness D. gain Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following Questions. Question 26. The report Mark wrote on the mating behaviour of bees were better than Bob’s report. A B C D Question 27 In order to converse the minerals, we must cut waste and recycle the metal in discarded products. A B C D Question 28. It was only she got to the station that she realised she had left her purse behind. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Rock ‘n’ Roll Changes The World Musicians who want to make it in the world have a lot of options, but the best one to lead them obscurity to ___(29)___ might be rock ‘n’ roll. Especially in the days when other forms of music are waning, rock ‘n’ roll ___(30)___ in the memory. Nevertheless, it is music that transcends cultures and keeps the youth of many nations invigorated. Before rock ‘n’ roll, there were many different forms of popular music. If looking at a timeline, the music of African Americans created both jazz and blues. These ___(31)___ into what is known as rhythm and blues, which is often just called R&B. With the invention of the electric guitar, rock ‘n’ roll came. ___ (32)___ as musicians experimented with what they could do with the sounds this new style of instrument could make. Musicians were quick to see the possibilities that rock ‘n’ roll offered. Early musicians like Chuck Berry __(33)___ the way for the likes of Elvis Presley, who would go on to become known as the King of Rock ‘n’ Roll. Question 29. A. renovation B. decline C. fame D. coruption Question 30. A. exists B. lives on C. comes round D. grows up Question 31. A. involved B. grew C. transformed D. evolved Question 32. A. into reality B. true C. into being D. independent Question 33. A. pave B. cover C. build D. construct Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the Questions. Curling is an event in the Winter Olympics that is played on an ice rink. This event requires a high level of skill and dexterity. The equipment includes stones with handles and brushes to sweep the ice. Two teams of four compete to get a stone as close as possible to the centre of a series of concentric circles. Hitting the target is more complicated than it seems. The two teams alternate to throw their stones. It is possible to remove a stone from a play area by hitting it with another stone or to use a stone to protect another stone. To assist in the progress of the stone across the ice, the other players will use their brushes to sweep the path in front of the stone so as to influence the direction and distance it can travel. In sixteenth century Scotland, stones were taken from the bottom of ponds. In North America, the metal- rimmed hubcaps of carriages with handles attached were used. In eighteenth century Canada, there were iron “stone” that weighed more than thirty kilograms. The game would have required more strength in the past than today.